What do pollen, dust mites, certain foods and drugs, insect venom, fungal spores, and some ingredients in cosmetics have in common?

What do pollen, dust mites, certain foods and drugs, insect venom, fungal spores, and some ingredients in cosmetics have in common?

Exam
1) What do pollen, dust mites, certain foods and drugs, insect venom, fungal spores, and some ingredients in cosmetics have in common?
(1pts)
they often contain dangerous bacteria
they often act as allergens
they all contain lipids
they are all made of protein
2) Which antibodies are secreted when an allergic person is exposed to an allergen?
(1pts)
IgD
IgM
IgE
IgA
3) A serious and sometimes fatal allergic reaction is
(1pts)
septic shock.
anaphylactic shock.
compensated shock.
toxic shock.
4) When the body’s defenses turn against its own cells, the disorder is called
(1pts)
an autoimmune response.
acquired immune deficiency syndrome.
anaphylactic shock.
passive immunity.
5) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily destroys which cells?
(1pts)
T1
B
helper T and macrophages
neutrophils
6) The method of contracting an illness after touching a contaminated doorknob, diaper or handkerchief is
(1pts)
inhalation contact.
direct contact.
indirect contact.
contact with a vector.
7) Becoming infected by a pathogen following the bite of a mosquito is considered
(1pts)
indirect contact.
inhalation contact.
direct contact.
contact with a vector.
8) The likelihood that a pathogen will make its host seriously ill is
(1pts)
pathogenicity.
invasiveness.
virulence.
opulence.
9) The enzyme used by HIV that allows it to make DNA from RNA is
(1pts)
DNA ligase.
restriction endonuclease.
helicase.
reverse transcriptase.
10) Endocarditis
(1pts)
refers to ‘inside the heart’.
refers to an irregular heart rhythm.
is only found in elderly patients.
is more problematic for women.
11) Infants born with a hole in some part of the hear wall are often referred to as
(1pts)
red babies.
blue babies.
purple babies.
green babies.
12) Pneumonia may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
(1pts)
bacteria.
anemia.
fungi.
viruses
13) The most aggressive form of lung cancer is
(1pts)
squamous cell carcinoma.
large-cell carcinoma.
small-cell carcinoma.
adenocarcinoma.
14) SARS is a form of
(1pts)
asthma.
influenza.
histoplasmosis.
lung cancer.
15) A dangerous form of diarrhea complicated by anemia may be caused by
(1pts)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Clostridium botulinum.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Escherichia coli.
16) Infections, stress or factors that speed up peristalsis may cause
(1pts)
diarrhea.
impaction.
constipation.
Crohn’s disease.
17) One of the most common of all childhood cancers is
(1pts)
bronchogenic carcinoma.
Wilms tumor.
glioblastoma.
osteogenic sarcoma.
18) Nephritis may lead to cessation of blood filtering by the glomerulus because the kidney is
(1pts)
surrounded by a tough renal capsule.
located behind the intestines.
a paired structure.
directly connected to the inferior vena cava
19) Bladder infections that travel up to the kidney are called
(1pts)
pyelonephritis.
nephritis.
pyelitis.
glomerulonephritis.
20) One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases is
(1pts)
HIV
chlamydia.
syphilis.
gonorrhea.
21) Why is Chlamydia trachomatis considered a “stealth” STD?
(1pts)
infections with it tend to sneak up on people.
a large percentage of people who have it have no symptoms and may pass it on easily.
when people have it, it is difficult to detect with modern techniques.
it may be transmitted in many different ways making it difficult to figure out how a person got it.
22) Other than being STDs, what do chlamydia and gonorrhea have in common?
(1pts)
their symptoms are identical.
they are caused by the same bacteria.
they both may cause PID.
they are both treated with the same antibiotics.
23) The area(s) of the body most susceptible to herpes simplex virus is (are)
(1pts)
mucous membranes of the mouth.
mucous membranes of the genitals.
broken skin.
all of these.
24) Genital warts are caused by
(1pts)
HPV.
Herpes virus.
gonococcus.
chlamydia.
25) HPV has been linked to
(1pts)
gonorrhea.
cervical cancer.
syphilis.
genital herpes.
26) Which of the following diseases, not usually classified as an STD, may be spread by sexual contact?
(1pts)
hepatitis A
hepatitis B
lung cancer
breast cancer
27) Which is a normal fungal inhabitant of the vagina that can overgrow under certain circumstances causing a “cottage cheesy” discharge, itching, and irritation?
(1pts)
Trichomonas vaginalis
lactobacillus
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
28) The treatment for trichomoniasis is
(1pts)
anti-fungals.
antibiotics.
gentian violet.
iodine.
29) The treatment for a case of hepatitis B is
(1pts)
anti-fungal drugs
penicillin
rest
a high protein diet
30) In relation to genital herpes, antiviral drugs
(1pts)
cure the disease.
reduce the symptoms during recurrences.
all are true except “cure the disease”.
reduce the frequency of recurrences.

x

Body systems work with each other in highly related ways. They perform functions that no one system could do alone. Which “Principle of Life” summarizes these facts?

Body systems work with each other in highly related ways. They perform functions that no one system could do alone. Which “Principle of Life” summarizes these facts?

· Question 1

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Body systems work with each other in highly related ways. They perform functions that no one system could do alone. Which “Principle of Life” summarizes these facts?

Selected Answer:

Life is Internally Integrated.

· Question 2

0 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following principles of life describes a fundamental requirement for the growth of an organism:

Selected Answer:

Life is Finite.

· Question 3

0 out of 1.6 points

Plants and Animals are examples of major groups or organisms within a

Selected Answer:

three domain system.

· Question 4

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following is not a major group of organisms within a six-Kingdom classification system?

Selected Answer:

humans

· Question 5

0 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following principles of life describes a fundamental requirement for the growth of an organism:

Selected Answer:

Life is Finite.

· Question 6

1.6 out of 1.6 points

In living organisms, cells of a similar kind are typically collected together and organized into

Selected Answer:

tissues.

· Question 7

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following sequences of terms moves neatly and sequentially from less complex to more complex?

Selected Answer:

individual – population – community – ecosystem

· Question 8

0 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following is not a “Principle of Life” on which this course in BIOL 101 is based?

Selected Answer:

Life is Diverse.

· Question 9

1.6 out of 1.6 points

“A mouse runs because natural selection happens to have given it feet.” This statement would be made by

Selected Answer:

a naturalist/evolutionist.

· Question 10

0 out of 1.6 points

A source of information and a source of energy are required in order for an organism to

Selected Answer:

b) and c)

· Question 11

0 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following is one of our “Principles of life” in this course?

Selected Answer:

Life is Multicellular.

· Question 12

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Your mouth, an alpine valley or a swamp are all examples of ecosystems. All ecosystems on the earth taken together are called

Selected Answer:

the biosphere.

· Question 13

1.6 out of 1.6 points

A macro-molecular structure in the cell is composed of

Selected Answer:

biomolecules.

· Question 14

0 out of 1.6 points

The Bible implies that biological life is significant because

Selected Answer:

it was created in six consecutive days with man created on the seventh day.

· Question 15

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Those serious scholars who are most inclined to see teleology in nature are those who argue that

Selected Answer:

b) and c)

· Question 16

1.6 out of 1.6 points

A sociologist uses the word “community” to refer to a collection of different sorts of people; a biologist uses the same term to refer to a collection of different

Selected Answer:

populations.

· Question 17

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following is a “Principle of Life” on which this course in BIOL 101 is based?

Selected Answer:

Life is Complex.

· Question 18

0 out of 1.6 points

Which of the following is not a Biblical basis for the significance of biological life?

Selected Answer:

Living things are a clear evidence of power and wisdom of a Great Creator.

· Question 19

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Biomolecules are composed of

Selected Answer:

atoms.

· Question 20

1.6 out of 1.6 points

The term “teleology” expresses the idea that behind the designs seen in nature there lies a more ultimate

Selected Answer:

purpose.

· Question 21

1.6 out of 1.6 points

The term “life” cannot be defined in a biological sense because

Selected Answer:

living things are so formidably complex.

· Question 22

1.6 out of 1.6 points

The scientific method includes all except:

Selected Answer:

changing data

· Question 23

1.6 out of 1.6 points

In your textbook, one reason given for suspecting that living things are designed is that

Selected Answer:

the Bible argues that life’s glories point us to a Designer.

· Question 24

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Prayer for a cardiac patient will reduce the severity of hospital intervention during the patient’s recovery. This statement

Selected Answer:

is an hypothesis.

· Question 25

1.6 out of 1.6 points

Recall the study on prayer for heart patients described in your text. Which of the following would be the hardest thing to control for?

Selected Answer:

ensuring that individuals in the group not prayed for were not being prayed for by someone outside the study

Question 1

During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is then used

Question 2

Which of the following features of glycolysis is a value to the cell?

Question 3

DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

Question 4

Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 5

DNA contains two chains of nucleotides in which ______ and ______ alternate in supporting each chain structurally.

Question 6

The overall process that uptakes energypoor molecules (CO2 and H2O) from their reservoirs in nature and converts them into energyrich molecules is

Question 7

Enzymes are important because they

Question 8

Light dependent reactions of photosynthesis produce

Question 9

If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 10

Autotrophic organisms are supportive of man. They

Question 11

The wavelengths of light used in photosynthesis are found in the _________ portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Question 12

Which of the following phrases best describes the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?

Question 13

The immediate source of electrons for electron transfer phosphorylation is

Question 14

The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a single molecule, with the resultant production of about

Question 15

Biological information must exist because

Question 16

Which of the following is neither a reactant nor a product of glycolysis?

Question 17

Energyreleasing reactions drive biosynthetic ones forward by contributing to a pool of

Question 18

The physicist’s definition of energy is _______________ for use in defining energy changes within a living cell.

Question 19

The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered if the reaction is catalyzed by

Question 20

Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Question 21

The (gene)tic information in a single strand of DNA is found in

Question 22

The process of __________ can be defined as about 30 individual, sequential chemical reactions that form three metabolic pathways: one in the cytoplasm and two within the mitochondrion.

Question 23

Plants are considered autotrophic because their cells contain

Question 24

Energy supplied to break bonds in reactant molecules is known as

Question 25

_________ is a reactant in the process of aerobic respiration and _______ is a product of the same process.

Question 1

In healthy cells, the normal function of the activated Ras protein is to

Question 2

The two major problems that transcription solves for the cell are

Question 3

There are more than four kinds of amino acids in proteins. Each kind of amino acid must be coded for in mRNA. Thus, a short sequence of mRNA bases called a(n) _________ is used to code for each amino acid in the translation process.

Question 4

Which of the following phrases best describes the role of mRNA in gene expression?

Question 5

The “S” phase of the cell cycle represents the activity of

Question 6

_____________ is a disease state characterized by cells that divide uncontrollably and no longer respect their confinement within their tissue of origin.

Question 7

Animal development and automobile development differ in that

Question 8

The ______________ is a highly differentiated brain structure that is too specialized to be considered an “early brain region”.

Question 9

Why is the word “translation” used for protein production? Protein production is the process of

Question 10

Heart rate and respiratory inhalation rate functions in the mature human adult are controlled by the

Question 11

In the translation process, tRNA molecules are also called “adapter” molecules. Why? What is their function?

Question 12

The ________________ is often represented as a chart in which a specific sequence of bases in mRNA (a codon) is used to represent each amino acid building block found in the world of proteins.

Question 13

The nuclear membrane of the cell disintegrates during which phase of the cell cycle?

Question 14

When DNA is replicated, the two strands are first separated through _________; each strand then becomes a _________ against which two new strands are made.

Question 15

Life perpetuates itself at the cellular level

Question 16

The brain most directly interacts with and controls

Question 17

When the organism expresses a set of genes, the result is the characteristics of that organism. These characteristics are called its

Question 18

Moving ahead with cell division is controlled by the interaction of

Question 19

A dominant control over the endocrine system in mature human adults is exerted by the

Question 20

Which of the following is not a recognized organ system within the human body?

Question 21

Genes that normally direct the inhibition of cell division regulatory pathways are called

Question 22

Which of the following is a part of the overall processing of mRNA in the cell nucleus?

Question 23

The mitotic stage of metaphase is most clearly defined by

Question 24

Which of the following is tRNA’s role in translation?

Question 25

The term “transcription” means the process of

What is the name of a contractile unit of a muscle?

The nervous system interacts with the ___________ system to coordinate the internal integration of all the other body systems together.

Cranial and spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system serve

Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?

Which is not a sign or symptom of inflammation?

When a vaccine is given to a person with a healthy immune system, the result is

The calcium­binding protein in smooth muscle is _______; while the calcium­binding protein in skeletal muscle is ______.

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and of nutrients and cell wastes occurs principally in the

Macrophages seek out foreign invaders in the ______________, while neutrophils, at least initially are on patrol in the ___________

Which of the following brain regions and their functions are improperly matched?

The role of the hepatic portal system is to:

The structure of a human neuron is made up of a

While waiting for a signal to contract, a muscle cell membrane maintains a slightly higher positive charge on the _______ only because ________ are available to generate this difference.

All of the following are systems of the body except the:

The role of the ___________ branch of the autonomic nervous system mediates control of organ processes when the body is essentially ______.

The function of the urethra is to

Fluoxetine HCl affects synapses by

The function of the kidney is

Systolic blood pressure:

Which of the following is a type of neuron that receives a stimulus and transmits it to the central nervous system?

Vaccination works because

The function of the ureter is to

The structure of a human neuron uniquely and perfectly fits it for its signal­carrying role. The neuron is

In the basic structure of the human heart, blood first flows through the right atrium, then it travels to the:

The efferent or motor branch of the peripheral nervous system is subdivided into the ______ (voluntary) and ____________ (involuntary) nervous systems.

Question 1

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

Question 2

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

Question 3

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

Question 4

Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.

Question 5

From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

Question 6

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

Question 7

The diatom, Ellerbeckia arenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

Question 8

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

Question 9

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

Question 10

The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it

Question 11

All members of species Escherichia coli belong to the large “Group” known as

Question 12

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichia leucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

Question 13

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

Question 14

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

Question 15

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

Question 16

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

Question 17

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

Question 18

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

Question 19

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

Question 20

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of lifeform we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

Question 21

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

Question 22

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

Question 23

The microbe, Pyrodictium occultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it

Question 24

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

Question 25

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

What is the purpose of denaturing the RNA?

MCDB 101A Summer 2012 Midterm 2 Name____Key___________________________________

7/23/12 100 points Perm #__________________________________________

Circle the best answer for each of the multiple choice questions (3 points each)

1. A temperature sensitive (ts) mutation in 50 S ribosomal subunit protein prevents the binding of tRNAs to

the ribosome “E” at the non-permissive temperature. How many amino acids would be found in the longest

polypeptide chain that could be synthesized in this strain at the non-permissive temperature?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. 4

2. In the presence of lactose, a merodiploid of genotype I-dP+O+ Z-Y+/I+ P-OCZ+Y- will produce

a. Both â galactosidase and permease

b. â galactosidase but no permease

c. Permease but no â galactosidase

d. Neither â galactosidase nor permease

e. Blue colonies on X-gal media

3. The presence of short nucleotide repeats or exposure of DNA to intercalating agents can produce

a. nonsense mutations

b. nucleotide insertions

c. nucleotide deletions

d. frameshift mutations

e. all of the above

4. When running a northern blot you must denature the RNA prior to its transfer to the blotting membrane.

What is the purpose of denaturing the RNA?

a. To prevent the RNA from forming double-stranded molecules

b. To prevent the RNA from forming intramolecular base pairs

c. To provide RNA with a negative charge

d. To fragment the RNA prior to gel electrophoresis

e. To release the RNA from the polyacrylamide gel matrix used in the electrophoresis

5. Polarity may increase the survival of bacteria in their natural environment by reducing

a. unnecessary transcription of monocistronic genes

b. unnecessary transcription of polycistronic genes

c. unnecessary translation of polycistronic genes

d. the mutation frequency of monocystronic genes

e. the mutation frequency of polycystronic genes

6. A mutation that changes one amino acid to another without altering protein function is known as a

a. silent mutation

b. neutral mutation

c. missense mutation

d. nonsense mutation

e. reversion mutation

2

7. Which of the following is true of the blue-white cloning assay?

a. It is based on á complementation

b. Insertion of a gene into a blue-white cloning vector is detected by the appearance of blue colonies

c. It requires recombination between the plasmid and the host genome

d. The genome copy of the β-galactosidase gene must contain a mutation in its C-terminal domain

e. Both a and d are correct

8. Which of the following is a potentially mutagenic effect of ionizing radiation?

a. Formation of oxygen radicals

b. single base pair insertions or deletions

c. Deamination

d. Formation of intrastrand covalent linkages

e. all of the above

9. (4 points; insert correct numbers in blanks) Wobble base pairing deceases the number of different tRNA

genes required to pair with all of the isoleucine (Ile) codons from _____3_______ to ______1_______.

10. (6 points) Can deaminination of cytosine lead to the reversion of a nonsense mutation, resulting in the

restoration of a sense codon at that location in the DNA molecule? Explain.

No (2 points). Cytosine deamination produces uracil, which will pair with adenine during replication.

This will cause a GC to AT transition. There are two stop codons that contain G: TGA and TAG. As a

result of deamination of the cytosine that is base paired with G, both of these codons would be

converted to another stop codon, TAA. As a result, cytosine deamination would not result in a

reversion (4 points for explanation).

11. (5 points) Explain why a small amount of histidine is added to growth media used in the Ames test.

Most mutations require replication (2 points). A limiting amount of histidine allows his- Salmonella

strains to undergo sufficient rounds of replication to generate mutations without producing colonies (3

points)

3

12. (5 points) Following electrophoresis, a gel used in the Southern blotting procedure is soaked in a sodium

hydroxide (NaOH) solution. What effect does NaOH have on DNA and why is this step necessary?

NaOH denatures/separates the DNA strands (2 points). This allows the labeled probe to bind to its

complementary/target sequence (3 points).

13. You have isolated a mutant protein that is only half the size of its wild type counterpart. The gene that

codes for the mutant protein is the same length as the wild type gene and contains a single base change. The

mutation is located within a glycine (gly) codon.

a. (3 points) Give the mRNA sequence of the glycine codon before the mutation occurred.

GGA

b. (3 points) Give the RNA sequence of the mutant codon (mark the 5’ and 3’ ends of each sequence).

UGA

14. (4 points) For the genotype given below, is β-galactosidase production absent, inducible or constitutive?

I+P+OCZ+Y+/ ISP+O+Z+Y-

15. Shown to the right is the imino form of the base __adenine______________.

This tautomer pairs with the ____amino________________ tautomer of the base

_________cytosine________________ (2 points for each correctly filled in blank)

16. (3 points) An E. coli cell with a nonsense suppressor tRNA could theoretically produce a fusion protein

consisting of the combined amino acid sequences encoded lacZ, lacY, and lacA. Give one reason why this

event would be unlikely to occur.

Any of the following will suffice:

1. Termination proteins are present in excess over any given tRNA

2. There are multiple genes for any given tRNA, and only one would likely contain a suppressor

mutation

3. More than one stop codon is normally present at the end of a protein coding sequence

4. There are three different stop codons

17. Regulation of the E. coli arabinose operon involves the binding of C protein to the ara I DNA sequence,

located just upstream of the transcription initiation site for the B, A, and D genes. The C protein binds to araI

only when arabinose is present in the media, and the binding of C to araI stimulates the transcription of the

polycistronic RNA that encodes the BAD proteins.

a. (3 points) Is this an example of positive or negative transcriptional regulation? positive

b. (4 points) Give the name of an assay that could be used to demonstrate that C protein binds to araI.

Gel retardation/shift assay

4

18. Ten individual tubes of media were inoculated with T1 sensitive E. coli. These were allowed to grow until

each reached a concentration of 1 X 107 cells/ml. One ml of a solution containing 1 X 106 T1 phage/ml was

combined with 0.1 ml of each bacterial culture and added to plates of solid media. The # of bacterial

colonies/plate is shown below. Show your work in the space provided.

Plate # 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

#colonies 22 23 20 25 21 20 26 22 24 21

a. (5 points) Use the information above (not the Poisson formula) to directly calculate the MOI.

MOI = #phage/#bacteria = _____1 X 106 phage/ml_____ = 1

1X 107 bacteria /ml X 0.1 ml

2 points for formula, 1 point for plugging in the correct data, and two points for correct answer

b. (5 points) Use the Poisson formula and the MOI you calculated above to determine the probability

of finding two colonies on any given plate.

Poisson formula: f(i) = e-m mi MOI = m = 1, i = 2, e-1 = 0.37

i!

f(2) = 0.37 X 12 = 0.37

2! 2

f = 0.18

2 points for formula, 1 point for plugging in the correct data, and two points for correct answer

c. (6 points) Are the findings of this study consistent with the hypothesis that the T1 resistant colonies

were a consequence of random mutations? Why or why not?

No/inconsistent (2 points). Two findings argue against the hypothesis that T1 resistance resulted from a

random mutation (either explanation is sufficient for full credit). (1) The table shows that the number

of resistant mutants is almost the same in each of the 10 cultures. Random mutations occurring at

various times during the growth of each individual culture should produce a wide range of colony

numbers similar to that observed in the Luria and Delbruck experiment. (2) Random mutation events

should follow a Poisson distribution. Based on the the Poisson calculation above, nearly 20% of the

plates should contain 2 resistant colonies. However, none of the plates produced 2 colonies. (4 points

for explanation)

5

19. You have used molecular biology techniques to create a phage lambda construct that is identical to a wild

type ë phage except that the PR promoter has been replaced with the lac operon promoter-operator DNA

sequence. You infect an E. coli leu- auxotroph that is growing in rich lactose media with this phage.

a. (3 points) Which of the following types of media would be most favorable for lysogeny?

1. rich lactose media

2. minimal lactose media

3. rich glucose media

4. miminal glucose media

b. (6 points) Give a detailed explanation for your answer to part a. Briefly describe the basic function(s) of any

proteins you mention in your explanation.

Lysogeny would be favored by minimal media as this would inhibit production of integration host

factor/IHF proteins which degrade CII (2 points). CII is a transcriptional activator required for the

production of sufficient amounts of CI and integrase proteins needed respectively to inhibit the lytic

cycle and facilitate phage integration into the host genome (2 points). Lactose media is needed to

induce transcription of the mRNA that encodes CII from its lac operon promoter (2 points).

c. (5 points) Would lysogeny occur in the media you chose for part a in an E. coli strain with the genotype

I+P+O+ Z-Y+? Why or why not?

No (2 points). In the absence of â-galactosidase, lactose could not be converted to allolactose and

induction of CII from its lac operon promoter would not occur (3 points).

As you saw in the previous exercise, the pHs of common solutions vary across the pH scale! Yet our body is constrained to work within a very narrow pH range. Small changes in pH can alter the function of biologically important molecules such as enzymes, by breaking hydrogen bonds and denaturing these proteins. For this reason, in most organisms (such as ourselves), pH is very closely regulated. pH can be kept relatively constant by the use of buffers, chemicals which can absorb or release hydrogen ions to maintain a relatively steady pH.

.As you saw in the previous exercise, the pHs of common solutions vary across the pH scale! Yet our body is constrained to work within a very narrow pH range. Small changes in pH can alter the function of biologically important molecules such as enzymes, by breaking hydrogen bonds and denaturing these proteins. For this reason, in most organisms (such as ourselves), pH is very closely regulated. pH can be kept relatively constant by the use of buffers, chemicals which can absorb or release hydrogen ions to maintain a relatively steady pH.

How to Proceed

Read through the introductory materials below.
Open the Unit 1 Experiment Answer Sheet and complete the following Experiment exercises this unit:
Experiment 1 Exercise 1 – The Scientific Method (~30-45 min)
Experiment 1 Exercise 2A – pH of Common Materials (~30-45 min)
Experiment 1 Exercise 2B – pH and Buffers (~45-60 min)
Save your completed Unit 1 Experiment Answer Sheet and submit it no later than Sunday midnight CT.
The Scientific Method – Introduction

The Scientific Method is the basis for almost all scientific research. If you click on the Unit 1 Overview page, you can read about how the Scientific Method is conducted. You can also read about the process in your book on pp 14-17. One area of confusion often involves the difference between a hypothesis and a prediction. This is because many people use these terms interchangeably, but in fact, they are different. Here is how your book discerns the two:

Hypothesis – an answer to a question or explanation of an observation (p 14).

Prediction – an expected outcome if our hypothesis is correct; often worded as “if…then” (p15).

The purpose of this first exercise is to have you use the Scientific Method yourself. We will use the following web site. Be sure that you can access it and use it:

Glencoe/McGraw Hill. No date. The Scientific Method
http://www.glencoe.com/sites/common_assets/science/virtual_labs/ES01/ES01.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

When you are ready to begin, use the instructions in the Unit 1 Experiment Answer Sheet and work through the exercise.

pH of Common Materials – Introduction

This unit we are also learning about some of the chemistry that is important in biological systems, such as pH. Be sure you have read pp 32-33 in your book and our online lecture this unit before beginning this exercise. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14; a pH less than 7 is considered acidic and a pH greater than 7 is basic. The pH scale is logarithmic, which means that a solution with a pH of 3 is ten times more acidic than a solution with a pH of 4 and a hundred times more acidic than a solution with a pH of 5.

Acids and bases are not necessarily a bad thing. Many of the materials that we handle and eat and drink everyday vary in pH. Some of these materials are safe to handle, such as “weak” acids (e.g., soda, coffee). Stronger acids (e.g., battery acid) and bases (e.g., ammonia) can be quite caustic and damaging. One way to measure the pH of liquids is to use pH indicator paper; paper that turns a particular color depending on the pH of the solution. Anyone with a swimming pool or hot tub is probably familiar with such paper.

We will use a virtual lab to examine the pH of common solutions that you might have around the house. You will use the following website; be sure you are able to access and use it:

Glencoe/McGraw Hill. No date. pH of Common Solutions
http://www.glencoe.com/sites/common_assets/science/virtual_labs/E22/E22.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

When you are ready to begin, open the Unit 1 Experiment Answer Sheet and follow the instructions to complete this exercise.

Buffers – Introduction

As you saw in the previous exercise, the pHs of common solutions vary across the pH scale! Yet our body is constrained to work within a very narrow pH range. Small changes in pH can alter the function of biologically important molecules such as enzymes, by breaking hydrogen bonds and denaturing these proteins. For this reason, in most organisms (such as ourselves), pH is very closely regulated. pH can be kept relatively constant by the use of buffers, chemicals which can absorb or release hydrogen ions to maintain a relatively steady pH.

In most vertebrate animals, blood pH must be maintained between 7.35 and 7.45. There are several biological buffers that work to maintain this pH; one of the more important being the carbonic acid – bicarbonate system:

H2O + CO2 H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-

In the reactions above, the double headed arrows indicate that each step is reversible. If carbon dioxide (CO2) levels increase in our blood, it can combine with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which can break down to form bicarbonate (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions. This would shift the pH towards the acidic end. If the acidity levels become too high, the whole process will reverse, such that hydrogen ions are removed and carbon dioxide is produced; thereby shifting the pH towards the alkaline end. This is only one example of a biological buffer; there are several other systems involved, but they all operate in a similar manner.

The purpose of this exercise is to help you understand the chemistry of buffers. Be sure that you have read through the material on pp 32-33 in your book and this unit’s online lecture on The Chemistry of Life. For this exercise, you will use the following website (be sure your speakers are on):

Identify a current issue being debated about American national security. 2. Explain two competing solutions to this problem.

1. Identify a current issue being debated about American national security. 2. Explain two competing solutions to this problem. 3. Evaluate which one is preferable. 4. Address the responsibilities of each level of government, which are federal, state, and local. (Most of the essay will be about the federal government). 5. Address the responsibilities of each of the three branches of the federal government.

Imagine that you’ve applied for an internship with your local Senator but there are many other people competing for the position. In order to determine the best person for the job, the Senator wants to determine how much each potential intern knows about the U.S. electoral system. Create an 18- to 20-slide presentation to illustrate your knowledge about the U.S. electorate, campaigns, and political parties. Your presentation must include the following:

Imagine that you’ve applied for an internship with your local Senator but there are many other people competing for the position. In order to determine the best person for the job, the Senator wants to determine how much each potential intern knows about the U.S. electoral system.

Create an 18- to 20-slide presentation to illustrate your knowledge about the U.S. electorate, campaigns, and political parties. Your presentation must include the following:
The purpose and functions of political parties in the United States
The various ways U.S. citizens can participate in the campaign and election process
The function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process
The role the national political party conventions play in the presidential election process
The presidential general election campaign process, and the important factors and events that influence it
The role the media (TV, radio, internet, social media) plays in modern political campaigns
The role and influence of money in the modern political campaign