Multiple choice Questions

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Exam 2 Questions are composed of the following:

35 Multiple choice Questions- chapters 5-12

6 questions on Freud’s Anxiety & Ego-defense Mechanisms

9 matching- Freud’s Anxiety & Ego-defense Mechanisms

1. As you are reading this question right now, you are consciously processing the meaning of the words in which stage of memory?

a. sensory memory

b. short-term memory

c. long-term memory

d. episodic memory

2. At age 80, Bonita recalls the wonderful summers she spent with her grandparents during her childhood. She talks about the market in town where you could buy freshly churned ice cream and garden vegetables, the county fair, and bonfires where her grandmother would make s’mores for the family. Bonita’s recollections are an example of _____

a. sensory memory

b. short-term memory

c. long term memory

d. recognition memory

3. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of forgetting described in your textbook?

a. consolidation

b. decay

c. encoding failure

d. interference

4. According to Freud, _____ memories remain unconscious yet are still capable of influencing behavior and personality.

a. repressed

b. suppressed

c. prospective

d. retrospective

5. To help understand how neurons change in response to the formation of a new memory, researchers have extensively studied:

a. the sea snail Aplysia.

b. undergraduate psychology students.

c. dolphins

d. a man known by the initials H.M.

6. Keisha is determined to ace her microbiology final. Which of the following strategies would be LEAST likely to improve her memory for the material covered in her microbiology textbook?

a. outlining the chapter information in a way that shows how information is related

b. going without sleep the night before the exam and studying right up until she takes the test

c. using the photographs and diagrams in the text to help create visual memories of the material

d. spending extra time on material in the middle of the chapter

7. While Mary was reading a story about the Australian Outback adventures of Billy and his dog, she had no problem visualizing the arid countryside, the unusual animals that lived there, and the various people that Billy and his dog met in their journeys. Mary is using:

a. mental imagery.

b. a mental set

c.an algorithm

d. a heuristic

8. When Jean-Claude came back from skiing he wanted to brew a cup of coffee. Because he was out of coffee filters, he settled for tea. Jean-Claude’s failure to realize he could use a paper towel as a coffee filter best illustrates:

a. a mental set.

b. flexible cognition.

c. functional fixedness.

d. the availability heuristic.

9. Research suggests that the _____ is most likely to be used when people rely on information involving vivid memories to determine the likelihood of events occurring.

a. elimination-by-aspects model

b. representative heuristic

c. additive model

d. availability heuristic

10. Dr. Mathias believes that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs that “push” us to behave in certain ways. Dr. Mathias’s views are most consistent with _____ theories of motivation.

a. instinct

b. drive

c. incentive

d. humanistic

11. The desire to avoid boredomis to _____ theoryas the desire to drink when thirstyis to _____ theory.

a. arousal; drive

b. drive; arousal

c. humanistic; incentive

d. incentive; humanistic

12. Nate wonders how his friend Jim can wake up at 5:00 every morning to swim laps before school. When he asks about it, Jim replies that he simply wants to realize his highest personal potential in swimming. Jim’s explanation is most consistent with _____ theories of motivation.

a. instinct

b. drive

c. humanistic

d. arousal

13. Which of the following could be referred to as “the hunger hormone” because it stimulates a person’s appetite?

a. ghrelin

b. insulin

c. glucose

d. cholecystokinin

14.Which of the following statements BEST describes deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

a. a harmful chemical preservative that is a known teratogen

b. a specific gene that is known to be associated with several serious birth defects

c. a double-stranded molecule that encodes genetic instructions

d. the chemical “trigger” that activates cell division in the developing embryo

15. The term _____ refers to the characteristics that are actually observed in an organism, and these characteristics depend on which genes get expressed.

a. genotype

b. phenotype

c. allele

d. chromosome

16. Humans carry all of the genes necessary to develop a tail, but we typically don’t develop tails because:

a. those genes are never activated.

b. those genes can only be activated by external factors that no longer exist in our present environment.

c. we have also inherited a copy of the dominant “no-tails” gene.

d. we have also inherited two recessive “no-tails” genes.

17. Mr. and Ms. Belmont are the parents of five-month-old Veronica. Although Veronica slept in the same bed as her parents for the first few months of life, she now sleeps in her own room. According to research on U.S. families, which of the following reasons explain why the Belmonts probably moved Veronica to her own bed?

a. Mr. and Ms. Belmont are probably trying for another baby.

b. Mr. and Ms. Belmont want to encourage interdependence in Veronica.

c. Mr. and Ms. Belmont want to encourage independence and self-reliance.

d. Mr. and Ms. Belmont are concerned that Veronica is not getting enough sleep.

18. Vicki was sitting in the rocking chair and playing with her doll. She dropped the doll, which landed out of view behind the rocking chair. A few moments later, Vicki climbed down and retrieved the doll. Vicki’s behavior suggests that she has acquired the understanding of:

a. object permanence.

b. abstract reasoning.

c. centration

d. conservation

19. Thirty-year-old Alayna is painfully shy and so sensitive to rejection that she rarely talks to people other than her co-workers and her family members. Occasionally, a man asks her out, but she always refuses. She spends a good deal of time reading and writing in her diary about her loneliness and other feelings. According to Erikson’s theory, Alayna is facing the psychosocial conflict of _____ and is likely to develop _____.

a. industry versus inferiority; inferiority

b. autonomy versus guilt; guilt

c. generativity versus stagnation; stagnation

d. intimacy versus isolation; isolation

20. Tracy is very fit and energetic. She goes to aerobics classes four times a week, and she is considered by many to be very feminine, especially by her same-sex partner. Tracy’s sense of femininity is her _____, and her attraction to a member of the same sex is her _____.

a. gender; gender role

b. gender identity; sexual orientation

c. sex; gender identity

d. sexual orientation; gender identity

21. Young Bobby is anxious, fearful, and soft-hearted. Because of these characteristics, his father is worried that Bobby is not masculine enough. Bobby’s father is endorsing:

a. homophobia

b. benevolent sexism.

c. gender-role stereotypes.

d. unconscious repression.

22. In looking at gender differences on emotion, psychologist Agneta Fischer and her colleagues analyzed cross-cultural data from 37 countries around the world. The researchers found that across cultures:

a. women report experiencing and expressing more sadness, fear, and guilt, while men report experiencing and expressing more anger and hostility.

b. men are more emotionally expressive than women in private, but not public, settings.

c. men and women reported experiencing exactly the same emotions, but only men freely expressed anger and guilt.

d. men are significantly more accurate than women in interpreting the emotional meaning of nonverbal cues.

23. Cindy is a 15 year-old high school cheerleader living in the south-central region of the United States. When she learned that she had been cut from the squad for the next academic year, Cindy flew into a fit of rage and punched her cheerleading coach in the nose. In the terminology of your textbook, Cindy’s outburst violated which type of display rules?

a. athletic

b. biologically-determined

c. culturally-determined

d. passive-aggressive

24. Gender schema theory is to _____ as social learning theory is to _____.

a. cognitive categories; reinforcement, punishment, and modeling

b. genetics; environment

c. reinforcement, punishment, and modeling; cognitive categories

d. environment; genetics

25. Carl was born a female (Carla) but feels more authentic now that he is living as a man. Recently, Carl has been encouraged by his friends to engage in strength training (lifting weights) because it is “what men do.” As a woman, Carl was never encouraged to do strength training because he was told that this would “make him bulky like a man.” This example illustrates the _____ perspective.

a. social learning

b. interactionist

c. social identity

d. evolutionary

26. Amy was born a woman but underwent hormonal treatments and sex reassignment surgery. Now Amy is known as Allen, a man. Based on the information in your textbook, Allen is best described as:

a. homosexual.

b. transsexual

c. transient

d. intersex

27. For medical reasons, 25-year-old Nadine has to have both of her ovaries surgically removed. Following the operation, Nadine is likely to experience:

a. a steep drop in sexual interest and sexual activity.

b. an increase in the production of estrogen.

c. homosexual feelings and urges.

d. little or no drop in her normal level of sexual interest and sexual activity.

28. For most of his adult life, Bob has become sexually aroused any time he rides a roller coaster. On several occasions, he has been banned from fairs and carnivals because the other patrons find his appearance to be indecent. Based on the information in your textbook, Bob probably suffers from:

a. a paraphilia.

b. male orgasmic disorder.

c. an erectile disorder.

d. sexual sadism disorder.

29. Which of the following is NOT one of John Gottman’s suggestions for improving communication and conflict resolution in marriages and other relationships?

a. Be aware of personality differences in handling conflicts.

b. The male should actively try to avoid conflict with his female partner.

c. Avoid personal attacks in raising issues that need to be resolved.

d. Call a time-out if either partner begins to feel overwhelmed by his or her emotions.

30. Gina and her boyfriend have been arrested on several occasions for having sex with each other in public elevators. This type of inappropriate sexual behavior is termed:

a. transvestic disorder.

b. pedophilic disorder.

c. voyeurism disorder

d. exhibitionistic disorder.

31. Based on research that has been conducted so far, what can be concluded about the causes of sexual orientation?

a. Researchers cannot say with certainty why people become homosexual, bisexual, or heterosexual.

b. Most researchers are now convinced that sexual orientation is primarily the result of environmental influences.

c. Researchers are sure that homosexuality is caused by unpleasant early heterosexual experiences.

d. Most researchers are now convinced that sexual orientation is almost certainly caused by genetic factors and that other factors have little or no influence.

32. Researchers have investigated possible gender differences in the frequency of daily hassles. What does this research show? Researchers have investigated possible gender differences in the frequency of daily hassles. What does this research show?

a. Women experience more daily hassles and higher levels of stress associated with friends and family than men.

b. Men experience more daily hassles and higher levels of stress than women.

c. There are no gender differences in the number of daily hassles experienced.

d. Although women report more daily hassles than men, they experience significantly less stress because they use more effective coping strategies.

33. In their survey research, investigators interested in the relationship between racism and chronic stress found that three-quarters of African American adolescents reported being treated as incompetent or dangerous, or both, because of their race. Such subtle instances of racism are called:

a. daily hassles.

b. acculturative stressors.

c. life change units.

d. microaggressions

34. Although it is obvious to most of Bernie’s friends and family that he drinks too much, his wife Betsy refuses to admit that he has a drinking problem. She insists that he is a moderate drinker who has the occasional glass of red wine for medicinal purposes. In this situation it is possible that Betsy is using an emotion-focused coping strategy called:

a. wishful thinking.

b. escape–avoidance.

c. denial

d. distancing.

35. Traumatic events are events or situations that:

a. occur every day and annoy or upset people.

b. are perceived as positive, life-changing events.

c. are negative, severe, and far beyond our normal expectations for everyday life.

d. are chronic and prolonged and lead to exhaustion.

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  1. According to Elwell, who was the scholar who, at the beginning of the 20th century, surveyed more than two hundred “lives of Jesus” composed by scholars on a quest of the historical Jesus and convincingly showed that the “Jesus” they found was more a reflection of their own ideas than the real Jesus?
  2. According to Elwell, which of the following is a criterion of authenticity used by scholars to find Jesus’s authentic words?
  3. According to the presentations, the “General Epistles” are all written to specific persons or locations.
  4. According to the presentations, James, Jesus’ half-brother, is believed to be the author of the Epistle of James.
  5. According to the presentations, Hebrews attests to the Jewishness of early Christianity.
  6. According to the presentations, the Ur-Gospel theory says that an early Aramaic version of the Gospel formed the basis of the Greek versions of the first three Gospels we have today.
  7. According to Elwell, the Epistle of James was most likely written to a Gentile audience.
  8. According to Elwell, the prevailing view, for over a thousand years, of the interrelationship of the four Gospels was the canonical order (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John), and it is attributed to
  9. According to Elwell, the notion that the analysis of the literary units (totaling about 1,165) that comprise the Gospels were only subjected to analysis in the modern period is discredited by the existence of the Eusebian Canons.
  10. According to the presentations, the “General Epistles” are distinguished by the fact that they are some of the few letters of the New Testament not written by Paul.
  11. According to the presentations, which New Testament epistle is comprised of an elaborate theological reflection on the superiority of Christ and his sacrifice?
  12. According to Elwell, one of the arguments against Pauline authorship of Hebrews is that it is written in a Greek style that seems different from Paul’s.
  13. According to Elwell, the term “historical criticism” can be used in one of two ways: careful analysis or radical skepticism.
  14. According to the presentations, when a storyteller steps outside the story to address the audience itself, it is called an “aside.”
  15. According to the presentations, the three major theories relied upon by scholars to account for the Synoptic Problem are oral tradition, an Ur-Gospel, and literary interdependence.
  16. According to Elwell, the word “hermeneutics” refers to the theory and practice of interpretation.
  17. According to the presentations, the individual scenes, or stories, within the Gospels are referred to by scholars as “pericopae.”
  18. According to Elwell, the Epistle of James echoes Jesus’s teachings at several points, especially the Sermon on the Mount.
  19. According to the presentations, the Synoptic Gospels are Matthew, Mark, and John.
  20. According to Elwell, the letter “Q” was employed by scholars to refer to the approximately 230 verses that Matthew and Luke have in common, but which are not found in Mark.

 

BUY MORE MATERIALS FOR THIS COURSE:

NBST 515 Exam 1

NBST 515 Exam 2

NBST 515 Exam 3

NBST 515 Exam 4

Part 1

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Part 1

Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Examine the electromagnetic spectrum below. What can you conclude about x-rays compared to microwaves?

X-rays have the same frequency as microwaves.

X-rays have a lower frequency than microwaves.

X-rays have a longer wavelength than microwaves.

X-rays have a shorter wavelength than microwaves.

Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

In the diagram below, what is the property of the wave indicated by the letter A?

Amplitude

Frequency

Trough

Wavelength

Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which type of electromagnetic radiation is the primary cause of sunburns?

Radio waves

Ultraviolet rays

Visible waves

Rays

Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength?

As frequency increases, wavelength increases.

As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases.

As frequency increases, wavelength decreases.

As frequency increases, wavelength is unaffected.

Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of waves has more energy than an x-ray?

Gamma rays

Microwaves

Radio waves

Visible light

Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following represents the equilibrium of a wave? Diagram of a wave. The point between the highest and lowest points is labeled A; the height is labeled B; the highest point is labeled C; the distance between the highest points of consecutive waves is labeled D.

A

B

C

D

Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is a type of wave that travels at a right angle relative to the direction of motion?

Amplitude

Longitudinal

Propagated

Transverse

Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

If a star is located 100 light years from Earth, what can you conclude about the light from the star?

The light will take 100 years to reach Earth.

The light will take 100 seconds to reach Earth.

The light will take 300,000 years to reach Earth.

The light will travel a total of 300,000 kilometers to reach Earth.

Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

Radio waves

Ultraviolet waves

Visible light

X-rays

Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Examine the diagram of the electromagnetic spectrum below. If a wave has a wavelength of 1 kilometer, it must be a(n)

gamma ray

Microwave

radio wave

ray

Question 11 (Essay Worth 5 points)

In your own words, explain why longitudinal waves cannot travel in space.

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Question 12 (Essay Worth 5 points)

Suppose you are an astronomer, and a child asks you to explain the light given off by stars. In your own words, describe the relationship between the energy, frequency, and wavelength. Be sure to include information about the electromagnetic spectrum in your discussion.

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Part 2

Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Given the following blackbody curve graph, what color will Star A be?

Blue

Red

White

Yellow

Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following processes begins when a star enters the main sequence?

Nuclear fission

Nuclear fusion

Condensation of a nebula

Appearance of a supernova

Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Use the HR diagram below to answer the question. Which of the following types of stars had a greater initial mass?

Blue main sequence

Orange main sequence

Supernova

White dwarf

Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is a massive star that has reached the end of its stellar evolution?

Neutron star

Red giant

Stellar nebula

White dwarf

Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is the most likely end for a star that formed from a very small nebular cloud?

Black hole

Planetary nebula

Red supergiant

Supernova

Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following characteristics of stars is affected by a star’s temperature?

Brightness

Color

Distance from Earth

Size

Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following classifications of star temperature is coolest?

O

M

G

A

Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is an advantage of using parallax rather than the Doppler effect to determine star distance?

Parallax is easier to use than Doppler shift.

Parallax is more accurate for stars that are very far away.

The Doppler effect can be used only for sounds in space.

Doppler shift indicates only a change in location, not actual distance.

Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Use the HR diagram below to answer the question. Labeled HR diagram. The main sequence slopes from the upper-left of the diagram, which is blue, to the bottom-left of the diagram, which is red-orange. White dwarfs cluster at the bottom of the diagram, in the light blue section. Red supergiants cluster at the top of the diagram, in the orange-red section. Which of the following star types is the brightest?

Red main sequence

Red supergiant

White dwarf

Yellow main sequence

Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

An astronomer sees two stars in the sky. Both stars are equally far from Earth, but the first star is brighter than the second star. Which of the following is a valid conclusion about the first star?

It is larger than the second star.

It is smaller than the second star.

It is older than the second star.

It is younger than the second star.

Question 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

A star is observed moving away from Earth. What can you conclude about the spectrum of that star?

The spectrum will shift to the blue.

The spectrum will shift to the red.

The spectrum will not change.

The spectrum will shift first to the blue, and then to the red.

Question 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Given the following images, choose the one that most likely represents a B-class star. Star A is a yellow star. Star B is a blue star. Star C is a red star. Star D is a green star.

A

B

C

D

Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of stars started out on the main sequence with the largest initial mass? In Graph A, the curve peaks at 800 nm, in the red section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph B, the curve peaks at 550 nm, in the green section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph C, the curve peaks at 450 nm, in the blue section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph D, the curve peaks at 300 nm, in the violet section of the visible light spectrum.

A

B

C

D

Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is used to calculate the distance to a star based on subtle shifts in the star’s position relative to an observer on Earth?

Absolute magnitude

Doppler shift

Emissions

Parallax

Question 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of stars is the coolest? In Graph A, the curve peaks at 800 nm, in the red section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph B, the curve peaks at 550 nm, in the green section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph C, the curve peaks at 450 nm, in the blue section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph D, the curve peaks at 300 nm, in the violet section of the visible light spectrum.

A

B

C

D

Part 1

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Part 1

Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Examine the electromagnetic spectrum below. What can you conclude about x-rays compared to microwaves?

X-rays have the same frequency as microwaves.

X-rays have a lower frequency than microwaves.

X-rays have a longer wavelength than microwaves.

X-rays have a shorter wavelength than microwaves.

Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

In the diagram below, what is the property of the wave indicated by the letter A?

Amplitude

Frequency

Trough

Wavelength

Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which type of electromagnetic radiation is the primary cause of sunburns?

Radio waves

Ultraviolet rays

Visible waves

Rays

Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength?

As frequency increases, wavelength increases.

As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases.

As frequency increases, wavelength decreases.

As frequency increases, wavelength is unaffected.

Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of waves has more energy than an x-ray?

Gamma rays

Microwaves

Radio waves

Visible light

Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following represents the equilibrium of a wave? Diagram of a wave. The point between the highest and lowest points is labeled A; the height is labeled B; the highest point is labeled C; the distance between the highest points of consecutive waves is labeled D.

A

B

C

D

Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is a type of wave that travels at a right angle relative to the direction of motion?

Amplitude

Longitudinal

Propagated

Transverse

Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

If a star is located 100 light years from Earth, what can you conclude about the light from the star?

The light will take 100 years to reach Earth.

The light will take 100 seconds to reach Earth.

The light will take 300,000 years to reach Earth.

The light will travel a total of 300,000 kilometers to reach Earth.

Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

Radio waves

Ultraviolet waves

Visible light

X-rays

Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Examine the diagram of the electromagnetic spectrum below. If a wave has a wavelength of 1 kilometer, it must be a(n)

gamma ray

Microwave

radio wave

ray

Question 11 (Essay Worth 5 points)

In your own words, explain why longitudinal waves cannot travel in space.

http://learn.flvs.net/educator/images/spellcheck.gif http://learn.flvs.net/Development/apps/educator/view/web/assets/addAudio.gif http://learn.flvs.net/Development/apps/educator/view/web/assets/addVideo.gif

Question 12 (Essay Worth 5 points)

Suppose you are an astronomer, and a child asks you to explain the light given off by stars. In your own words, describe the relationship between the energy, frequency, and wavelength. Be sure to include information about the electromagnetic spectrum in your discussion.

http://learn.flvs.net/educator/images/spellcheck.gif http://learn.flvs.net/Development/apps/educator/view/web/assets/addAudio.gif http://learn.flvs.net/Development/apps/educator/view/web/assets/addVideo.gif

Part 2

Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Given the following blackbody curve graph, what color will Star A be?

Blue

Red

White

Yellow

Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following processes begins when a star enters the main sequence?

Nuclear fission

Nuclear fusion

Condensation of a nebula

Appearance of a supernova

Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Use the HR diagram below to answer the question. Which of the following types of stars had a greater initial mass?

Blue main sequence

Orange main sequence

Supernova

White dwarf

Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is a massive star that has reached the end of its stellar evolution?

Neutron star

Red giant

Stellar nebula

White dwarf

Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is the most likely end for a star that formed from a very small nebular cloud?

Black hole

Planetary nebula

Red supergiant

Supernova

Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following characteristics of stars is affected by a star’s temperature?

Brightness

Color

Distance from Earth

Size

Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following classifications of star temperature is coolest?

O

M

G

A

Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is an advantage of using parallax rather than the Doppler effect to determine star distance?

Parallax is easier to use than Doppler shift.

Parallax is more accurate for stars that are very far away.

The Doppler effect can be used only for sounds in space.

Doppler shift indicates only a change in location, not actual distance.

Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Use the HR diagram below to answer the question. Labeled HR diagram. The main sequence slopes from the upper-left of the diagram, which is blue, to the bottom-left of the diagram, which is red-orange. White dwarfs cluster at the bottom of the diagram, in the light blue section. Red supergiants cluster at the top of the diagram, in the orange-red section. Which of the following star types is the brightest?

Red main sequence

Red supergiant

White dwarf

Yellow main sequence

Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

An astronomer sees two stars in the sky. Both stars are equally far from Earth, but the first star is brighter than the second star. Which of the following is a valid conclusion about the first star?

It is larger than the second star.

It is smaller than the second star.

It is older than the second star.

It is younger than the second star.

Question 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

A star is observed moving away from Earth. What can you conclude about the spectrum of that star?

The spectrum will shift to the blue.

The spectrum will shift to the red.

The spectrum will not change.

The spectrum will shift first to the blue, and then to the red.

Question 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Given the following images, choose the one that most likely represents a B-class star. Star A is a yellow star. Star B is a blue star. Star C is a red star. Star D is a green star.

A

B

C

D

Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of stars started out on the main sequence with the largest initial mass? In Graph A, the curve peaks at 800 nm, in the red section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph B, the curve peaks at 550 nm, in the green section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph C, the curve peaks at 450 nm, in the blue section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph D, the curve peaks at 300 nm, in the violet section of the visible light spectrum.

A

B

C

D

Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following is used to calculate the distance to a star based on subtle shifts in the star’s position relative to an observer on Earth?

Absolute magnitude

Doppler shift

Emissions

Parallax

Question 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)

Which of the following types of stars is the coolest? In Graph A, the curve peaks at 800 nm, in the red section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph B, the curve peaks at 550 nm, in the green section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph C, the curve peaks at 450 nm, in the blue section of the visible light spectrum. In Graph D, the curve peaks at 300 nm, in the violet section of the visible light spectrum.

A

B

C

D

Assignment 4

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Assignment 4This covers Unit IV Geologic Time in the textbook (Chapter 8).

 

Matching (3 points) 

1)      Match each item with the correct description (there will be one unused description).

catastrophism

amber

uniformitarianism

index fossil

 

A)    a fossil organism that is restricted to a certain brief stretch of geologic time, but was widespread and abundant during its time on Earth

B)     the notion that we can understand the geologic past by focusing on present day processes and physical laws; geologic change may be slow or gradual

C)     an unconformity in which younger sedimentary layers overlie older metamorphic or intrusive igneous rock (sedimentary layers sit on an erosion surface)

D)    the defunct notion that the Earth is only a few thousand years old, and that all geologic change is accomplished rapidly through violent events

E)     fossil tree sap

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE.  Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. (3 points each)

 

 

 

Numbers 2, 3, and 4: Examine the figure above that shows the sequence of strata in three Colorado Plateau national parks (page 282 in textbook).

 

2) Which unit(s) are shared by Grand Canyon National Park and Zion National Park?

A) Moenkopi and Chinle         B) Toroweap and Kaibab

C) Kaibab only                                    D) Kaibab and Monekopi

 

3) If the Wingate Sandstone was deposited in the Triassic period, the Navajo Sandstone in the late Triassic through early Jurassic, and the Carmel Formation in the Jurassic, a visitor to Bryce Canyon National Park shouldn’t expect to find any strata older than the ________ period.

A) Permian      B) Triassic       C) Tertiary       D) Cretaceous

 

4) Since the Moenkopi Formation was deposited at the end of the Permian period and the very beginning of the Triassic, and the Navajo Sandstone was deposited at the end of the Triassic and into the Jurassic, what is the age of the Chinle Formation?

A) Triassic       B) Jurassic       C) Permian       D) Cambrian

 

5) “This rock is fifteen million years old,” is an example of ________.

A) the principle of cross-cutting relationships              B) superposition

C) a numerical date                                                      D) a relative date

 

6) Which of the following geologic observations would NOT bear directly on working out the sequence of geologic events in an area?

A) a well-exposed dike of basalt in sandstone

B) an unconformity between a granite and sandstone

C) inclusions of sandstone in a granite pluton

D) the feldspar and quartz contents of a granite

 

 

7) A worm would stand a poor chance of being fossilized because ________.

A) worms contain no carbon-14                      B) worms live in the shallow ocean

C) worms have no hard parts               D) worms were very rare during the geologic past

 

8) Using the known rates of radioactive decay to date the crystallization of certain minerals is known as ________ dating.

A) relative        B) fossil assemblage    C) conventional                       D) radiometric

 

 

Fill in the blank. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. (2 points each)

9) A lava flow includes fragments of limestone in it. Which rock unit is older, the lava flow or the limestone? ________

10) A sandstone is found to overlie a shale. The shale contains a volcanic ash layer that has been radiometrically dated to 84 million years ago. Both the shale and the sandstone are cut by a pluton of gabbro that has been dated to 60 million years old. How old is the sandstone layer? ________

11) The amount of time it takes for half of the remaining radioactive isotopes to decay is the ________ of a isotope system.

12) Would a pigeon or a penguin make a better index fossil for the present day? ________

13) All else being equal, in a horizontal sequence of sedimentary rock layers, each higher bed is younger than the bed below it. This idea is the principle of ________.

 

14) The process by which geologists identify and match sedimentary strata and other rocks of the same ages in different areas is ________.

15) When radioactive potassium-40 decays, the stable daughter isotope ________ is produced.

16) A(n) ________ is an erosional unconformity with parallel beds or strata above and below.

 

#9-16 Vocabulary (extra words and/or phrases are included, not all will be used)

correlation

superposition

alpha decay

Curie point

half-life

carbon-14

argon-40

uranium

inclusion

dike

sill

disconformity

marble

lava flow

limestone

younger than 60 million years old

between 84 and 60 million years old

older than 84 million years old

penguin

pigeon

Which of the following statements is true about scarcity?

/0 Comments/in /by

1. Which of the following statements is true about scarcity?

A) Scarcity refers to the situation in which unlimited wants exceed limited resources.

B) Scarcity is not a problem for the wealthy.

C) Scarcity is only a problem when a country has too large a population.

D) Scarcity arises when there is a wide disparity in income distribution.

2. By definition, economics is the study of

A) how to make money in the stock market.

B) how to make money in a market economy.

C) the choices people make to attain their goals, given their scarce resources.

D) supply and demand.

3. The term ________ in economics refers to a group of buyers and sellers of a product and the

arrangement by which they come together to trade.

A) collective

B) cooperative

C) market

D) trade-off

4. Economists reason that the optimal decision is to continue any activity up to the point where the

A) marginal benefit is zero.

B) marginal benefit is greater than the marginal cost.

C) marginal cost is zero.

D) marginal benefit equals the marginal cost.

5. The three fundamental questions that any economy must address are:

A) What will be the prices of goods and services; how will these goods and services be

produced; and who will receive them?

B) What goods and services to produce; how will these goods and services be produced; and

who receives them?

C) Who gets jobs; what wages do workers earn; and who owns what property?

D) How much will be saved; what will be produced; and how can these goods and services be

fairly distributed?

6. The idea that because of scarcity, producing more of one good or service means producing less

of another good or service refers to the economic concept of

A) optimization.

B) efficiency.

C) trade-off.

D) equity.

7. The highest valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity is the definition of

A) economic equity.

B) marginal benefit.

C) opportunity cost.

D) marginal cost.

8. Arlene quits her $125,000-a-year job to take care of her ailing parents. What is the opportunity

cost of her decision?

A) zero, since she will no longer be earning a salary

B) It depends on the ʺgoing rateʺ for home-care providers.

C) at least $125,000

D) the value she attributes to the satisfaction she receives from taking care of her parents

9. Who, in a centrally planned economy, decides what goods and services will be produced with

the scarce resources available in that economy?

A) the government

B) producers

C) consumers

D) consumers and producers

E) the government, consumers and producers

10. The decision about what goods and services will be produced made in a market economy is made by

A) lawmakers in the government voting on what will be produced.

B) workers deciding to produce only what the boss says must be produced.

C) producers deciding what society wants most.

D) consumers and firms choosing which goods and services to buy or produce.

E) consumers dictating to firms what they need most.

11. How are the fundamental economic questions answered in a market economy?

A) The government alone decides the answers.

B) Individuals, firms, and the government interact in markets to decide the answers to these

questions.

C) Households and firms interact in markets to decide the answers to these questions.

D) Large corporations alone decide the answers.

12. Which of the following is a positive economic statement?

A) The standard of living in the United States should be higher.

B) If the price of iPhones falls, a larger quantity of iPhones will be purchased.

C) The government should revamp the health care system.

D) The U.S. government should not have bailed out U.S. auto manufacturers.

13. Which of the following is a normative economic statement?

A) Rising global demand for coal has led to increases in the price of coal.

B) With rising mortgage rates and rising unemployment rates, the number of unsold homes

has increased.

C) The state of Texas is considering increasing funds for light-rail development to promote

the use of public transportation.

D) Pharmaceutical manufacturers should not be allowed to patent their products so

prescription drugs would be more affordable.

14. Microeconomics is the study of

A) how households and firms make choices.

B) the economy as a whole.

C) the global economy.

D) topics such as unemployment, inflation, and economic growth.

15. Macroeconomics is the study of

A) how households make choices.

B) how firms make choices.

C) how households and firms make choices.

D) the economy as a whole.

16. Which of the following statements is true about profit?

A) Profit refers to the revenue received from the sale of a quantity of goods.

B) Profit is calculated by multiplying price and quantity sold.

C) The terms accounting profit and economic profit can be used interchangeably.

D) Profit is the difference between revenue and cost.

17. Which of the following is an example of an activity undertaken by an entrepreneur?

A) designing your landscaping for your new home

B) holding a position as the president of a liberal arts college

C) running for the president of the United States

D) starting your own pet sitting business

18. Which is NOT a factor of production:

A) Labor

B) Natural Resources

C) Dollars

D) Capital

19 Positive analysis is concerned with “what ought to be”, while normative analysis is concerned with “what is”.

A) TRUE B) FALSE

20 The points outside the production possibilities frontier are

A) efficient.

B) attainable.

C) inefficient.

D) unattainable.

21. The production possibilities frontier shows the ________ combinations of two products that may

be produced in a particular time period with available resources.

A) minimum attainable

B) maximum attainable

C) only

D) equitable

22. The production possibilities frontier model shows that

A) if consumers decide to buy more of a product its price will increase.

B) a market economy is more efficient in producing goods and services than is a centrally

planned economy.

C) economic growth can only be achieved by free market economies.

D) if all resources are fully and efficiently utilized, more of one good can be produced only by

producing less of another good.

23. In a production possibilities frontier model, a point ________ the frontier is productively

inefficient.

A) along

B) inside

C) outside

D) at either intercept of

24. An inward shift of a nation’s production possibilities frontier can occur due to

A) a reduction in unemployment.

B) a natural disaster like a hurricane or bad earthquake.

C) a change in the amounts of one good desired.

D) an increase in the labor force.

25. Without an increase in the supplies of factors of production, how can a nation achieve economic

growth?

A) by producing more high-value goods and less of low-value goods

B) through technological advancement which enables more output with the same quantity of

resources

C) by lowering the prices of factors of production

D) by increasing the prices of factors of production

26. Which of the following would shift a nation’s production possibilities frontier outward?

A) discovering a cheap way to convert sunshine into electricity

B) an increase in demand for the nation’s products

C) a decrease in the unemployment rate

D) a law requiring workers to retire at age 50

27. The Great Depression of the 1930s with a large number of workers and factories unemployed

would be represented in a production possibilities frontier graph by

A) a point inside the frontier.

B) a point outside the frontier.

C) a point on the frontier.

D) an intercept on either the vertical or the horizontal axis.

28. An organization of producers that limits the amount of a good produced is known as a

A) free market organization.

B) guild.

C) collective.

D) co-op.

29. The opportunity cost of taking a semester-long economics class is

A) the cost of tuition and fees only.

B) the value of the time spent in the classroom.

C) zero because there is no admission charged if you are enrolled in the course.

D) equal to the highest value of an alternative use of the time and money spent on the class.

E) the knowledge and enjoyment you receive from attending the class.

30. You have an absolute advantage whenever you

A) are better educated than someone else.

B) can produce more of something than others with the same resources.

C) prefer to do one particular activity.

D) can produce something at a lower opportunity cost than others.

31. Comparative advantage means the ability to produce a good or service

A) at a lower selling price than any other producer.

B) at a lower opportunity cost than any other producer.

C) of a higher quality than any other producer.

D) at a higher profit level than any other producer.

32. Which of the following is not a factor of production?

A) an acre of farmland

B) a drill press in a machine shop

C) the manager of the local tire shop

D) $1,000 in cash

33. “An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations” published in 1776 was written

by

A) John Maynard Keynes.

B) Karl Marx.

C) Alfred Marshall.

D) Adam Smith.

34. Adam Smith’s behavioral assumption about humans was that people

A) typically act irrationally.

B) usually act in a rational, self-interested way.

C) are consistently greedy.

D) typically act randomly.

35. Adam Smith’s invisible hand refers to

A) the government’s unobtrusive role in ensuring that the economy functions efficiently.

B) property ownership laws and the rule of the court system.

C) the process by which individuals acting in their own self-interest bring about a market

outcome that benefits society as a whole.

D) the laws of nature that influence economics decisions.

36. In economics, the term ________ means “additional” or “extra”.

A) allocative

B) marginal

C) equity

D) optimal

37. Marginal analysis involves undertaking an activity

A) until its marginal costs start declining.

B) only when its marginal benefits are positive.

C) until its marginal benefits equal marginal costs.

D) only if its marginal costs are greater than its marginal benefits.

38. Economists assume that individuals

A) behave in unpredictable ways.

B) will never take actions to help others.

C) prefer to live in a society that values fairness above all else.

D) are rational and respond to incentives.

39. How are the fundamental economic decisions determined in North Korea?

A) Individuals, firms, and the government interact in a market to make these economic

decisions.

B) These decisions are made by the country’s elders who have had much experience in

answering these questions.

C) The government decides because North Korea is a centrally planned economy.

D) The United Nations decides because North Korea is a developing economy.

40, The government makes all economic decisions in a mixed economy.

A) True B) False

41. In economics, choices must be made because we live in a world of

A) unemployment.

B) scarcity.

C) greed.

D) unlimited resources.

42. The natural resources used in production are made available in the

A) goods and services market.

B) product market.

C) government market.

D) factor market.

43. When you purchase a new pair of jeans you do so in the

A) factor market.

B) input market

C) product market

D) resource market

44. The ________ demonstrates the roles played by households and firms in the market system.

A) production possibilities frontier

B) circular flow model

C) theory of comparative advantage

D) business cycle

45. Households ________ final goods and services in the ________ market.

A) purchase; factor

B) purchase; product

C) sell; factor

D) sell; product

46. In the circular flow model, producers

A) sell goods and services in the input market.

B) and households spend earnings from resource sales on goods and services in the factor market.

C) hire resources sold by households in the factor market.

D) spend earnings from resource sales on goods and services in the product market.

47. Which of the following statements about a simple circular flow model is false?

A) Producers are buyers in the factor market and sellers in the product market.

B) Households are neither buyers nor sellers in the input market.

C) Producers are buyers in the factor market.

D) Households are sellers in the product market.

48. All of the following are critical functions of the government in facilitating the operation of a market economy except

A) protecting private property.

B) enforcing property rights.

C) ensuring an equal distribution of income to all citizens.

D) enforcing contracts.

49. Entrepreneurs bring together the factors of production to produce goods and services.

A) TRUE B) FALSE

50. An economic ________ is a simplified version of some aspect of economic life used to analyze an

economic issue.

A) market

B) trade-off

C) variable

D) model

 

Additional Requirements

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