Directions: Read an excerpt from your text called: “Essay: Scanning Genomes for Disease Markers”. For this assignment, please discuss the essay from your text. Provide at least one meaningful pro and one con for this essay (in your opinion)
1. True or false: In a DNA molecule, the bases are covalently bonded to each other.
2. True or false: During DNA replication, the strands of parent DNA are unwound.
3. True or false: The function of messenger RNA (mRNA) is to transfer amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis.
4. True or false: The Genetic Code varies from species to species.
5. True or false: The completion of the Human Genome Project allowed us to sequence all of the human genome and to know the function of all of the genes.
6. In __________ every three bases is a/an _____________ that codes for a/an _____________.
7. True or false: During translation, the anticodon of tRNA pairs with bases in mRNA.
8. The removal of a nucleotide from a gene in the DNA leads to a _______________.
9. True or false: Cloning is a natural process for some organisms.
10. True or false: Lactose metabolizing enzymes are produced when RNA polymerase binds to the operator on the lac operon in the absence of lactose.
11. If one strand of DNA has the following sequence: CGGCTAATCGCC, what would the sequence of the complimentary strand be?
12. If the codon of an mRNA strand is UGC, the anticodon of the tRNA would be ___________ and the amino acid, ____________, will be added to the growing peptide chain.
13. True or false: In a normal cell, Ras is a continuously active protein that functions in signaling pathways, several of which promote the cell cycle.
14. True or false: Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) is a much safer procedure than amniocentesis because CVS is done later in pregnancy.
15. True or false: Transcriptional control is the most important level of gene control.
16. X-linked recessive disorders often pass from grandfather to granddaughter.
17. True or false: After it is synthesized, mRNA may linger in the nucleus before moving into the cytoplasm.
18. True or false: Two parents are affected with a genetic disorder. They produce an unaffected child. The disorder is likely transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait.
19. True or false: An enhancer region of DNA is adjacent to the promoter.
20. True or false: The only two methods by which fetal cells can be obtained for testing are amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling.
21. What purpose does a cell-signaling pathway serve in a multicellular organism?
22. True or false: Some genetic mutations can be determined by testing for proteins.
23. True or false: A regulatory gene codes for a protein that activates the genes in an operon.
24. True or false: Cancer cells show a high degree of contact inhibition.
25. The major way in which therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning differ is what?
26. True or false: Proto-oncogenes may code for growth factors.
27. True or false: Telomerase is highly active in cancer cells.
28. True or false: Angiogensis is not a suspected cause of cancer.
29. True or false: A karyotype can be done using any cell in the body.
30. True or false: An exchange of chromosomal segments between two nonhomologous chromosomes is a/an translocation.
31. In a duplication, a person has more than two alleles for a certain trait.
32. In an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, if both parents have the disorder, what is the chance that their sons will have the disorder?
33. A male has a particular X-linked recessive genetic disorder. His partner is normal, but her father had the disorder. What is the chance that their sons will have the disorder?
34. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive disorder. If a woman who does not have PKU gives birth to a child who has PKU, which of the following men, based on this information alone, could not be the father of the child?
35. True or false: An abnormality in DNA sequence used in a test to determine an abnormal allele is called a genetic marker.
36. True or false: A genetic profile can detect mutations in a person’s genes.
37. The insertion of genetic material into human cells for treatment of a disorder is called what?
39. What is the difference between ex vivo gene therapy and in vivo gene therapy?
40. True or false: Ultrasound images determine the karyotype of the fetus.
41. An autosomal recessive disorder that occurs among all ethnic groups, in which chloride ions fail to pass through a plasma membrane channel protein in the cells and leads these patients to develop thick mucus in their bronchial tubes and pancreatic ducts is ________.
42. What disorders are present only in males and are passed from father to all sons but not to daughters.
43. True or false: mRNA processing occurs after transcription.
44. A testable explanation of a broad range of related phenomena that is relied upon by scientists with a high degree of confidence is referred to as ________.
45. The smaller unit molecules (monomers) which combine to form proteins and polypeptides are called ____________.
46. Enzymes, some hormones, and structural molecules like keratin and collagen are examples of ______________.
47. An atom that has gained or lost electrons is referred to as _______________.
48. Cell membranes consist of _____________.
49. Which transport mechanism requires ATP to move materials across a plasma membrane?
50. A cell is placed in a solution. If the cell is observed to shrink, the solution must be _________________ relative to the interior of the cell.
51. What are the 1st and 2nd energy laws?
52. In higher cells, cellular (aerobic) respiration with production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is carried out in the _______________.
53. Meiosis differs from mitosis because _______________.
54. Leaves are green because ____________.
55. Many human traits such as eye color and height are controlled by _______________.
56. ______________ is a nucleic acid base found in ribonucleic acid (RNA) but not in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
57. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method of ________________.
58. The normal complement of sex chromosomes for a human male is ___________.
59. An allele is ____________.
60. A visual display of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size, shape, and banding pattern is ______.
61. The part of an enzyme that “fits” its substrate is called its __________ site.
62. True or false: recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) technology estimates the age of a rock sample.
63. True or false: A mutation of a tumor suppressor gene is most likely to cause a cell to become cancerous.
Describe how the primary structure of a protein or polypeptide ultimately detemines its final three-dimensional shape.
1 TAKE HOME EXAM FOR THE MOLECULAR GENETICS REVIEW BIOL 110 To understand microbiology, it is essential to have a fairly good understanding of such basic points of molecular genetics (proteins, enzymes, DNA, RNA, transcription, translation, and mutation. The purpose of this take home exam is to enable you – or force you if you prefer – to review these topics that you learned in your prerequisite course, BIOL 110. It will also introduce you to mechanisms of genetic recombination in bacteria. Read the Review of Molecular Genetics for Take Home Exam included in your hard copy of my Lecture Guide. It can be found at the end of Part-1 of my BIOL 230 Lecture E-text following the Unit 3 segment. I would urge you to use the hard copy of this material in conjunction with the illustrations and animations in the online version found on my web page at http://faculty.ccbcmd.edu/courses/bio141/lecguide/takehome/index.html After you read these sections and study the illustrations and animations, answer the enclosed Take Home Exam. OBJECTIVES FOR TAKE HOME EXAM FOR THE MOLECULAR GENETICS (DO NOT ANSWER THESE.) While you don’t have to turn in the Objectives listed below, these are objectives I would expect you to be fairly fluent with before we get very far into this course. (This is the major reason why BIOL 110 is a prerequisite for Microbiology.) If you answer the objectives first, you will find it easier to answer the take home exam. I. MICROBIAL GENETICS A. Polypeptides, Proteins, and Enzymes 1. Define or describe the following: a. amino acid b. “R” group c. peptide bond d. peptide e. polypeptide f. primary protein structure g. secondary protein structure h. tertiary protein structure i. quaternary protein structure j. gene 2. Describe how the primary structure of a protein or polypeptide ultimately detemines its final three-dimensional shape. 3. Describe how the order of nucleotide bases in DNA ultimately determines the final three-dimensional shape of a protein or polypeptide. B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid 1. State the 3 basic parts of a deoxyribonucleotide. 2. State which nitrogenous bases are purines and which are pyrimidines. 3. Define complementary base pairing. 2 C. DNA Replication 1. Briefly describe the process of DNA replication in bacteria. D. Ribonucleic Acid 1. State the 3 basic parts of a ribonucleotide. 2. State 3 ways RNA differs from DNA. 3. State the function of each of the following: a. tRNA b. mRNA c. rRNA E. Polypeptide and Protein Synthes 1. Define the following: a. gene b. transcription c. translation 2. Briefly describe the function of the following in terms of bacterial protein synthesis: a. mRNA b. RNA polymerase c. promoter region d. codon e. 30S ribosomal subunit f. 50S ribosomal subunit g. tRNA h. anticodon i. P-site of ribosome j. A-site of ribosome k. peptidyl transferase l. nonsense (stop) codon 3. Describe how the order of nucleotide bases along a gene in the DNA ultimately determines the three dimensional shape of the protein coded for by that gene. F. Mutation 1. Define mutation and genetic recombination. 2. Describe 2 different mechanisms of mutation and, in terms of protein synthesis, describe the 4 possible results that may occur as a result of these mutations. G. Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 1. Briefly describe the following means of genetic recombination in bacteria: a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation 3 BIOL 230 MICROBIOLOGY TAKE HOME EXAM FOR THE MOLECULAR GENETICS REVIEW Name: Lab Section: 60 points 1. Matching _____ The molecule synthesized by complementary base pairing of RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides to match a portion of one strand of DNA coding for a protein or polypeptide. _____ The enzymes that initiate and terminate transcription as well as join RNA nucleotides together. _____ A specific nucleotide sequence at the beginning of a gene to which RNA polymerase binds to start transcription. _____ A series of 3 consecutive mRNA bases coding for one specific amino acid. _____ The molecules that picks up specific amino acids and carries those amino acids to the ribosomes during translation. _____ A series of 3 tRNA bases complementary to a specific codon. _____ The site on a 50S ribosomal subunit to which new charged tRNA molecules first attach. _____ A series of 3 mRNA bases coding for no amino acid; serves as a signal to terminate translation. _____ The molecules that, along with proteins, form ribosomes. A. anticodon G. “P” site of ribosome B. “A” site of ribosome H. promoter region C. codon I. rRNA D. DNA polymerase J. RNA polymerases E. mRNA K. tRNA F. nonsense (stop) codon 4 2. Matching _____ The order of amino acids in a protein. _____ The folded, three-dimensional, functional shape of a protein. _____ Metabolic reactions in which molecules are broken down. _____ The sequence of purine and pyrimidine bases on one strand of DNA that codes for the amino acid sequence of a particular protein or polypeptide. _____ The process wherein mRNA is synthesized to be complementary to a gene. _____ The process wherein tRNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosomes and inserts them in proper place according to the mRNA “message.” A. gene F. anabolic reactions B. nucleotide G. catabolic reactions C. primary protein structure H. transcription D. secondary protein structure I. transformation E. tertiary protein structure J. translation 3. _____ The nitrogenous bases cytosine and thymine are: A. purines B. codons C. proteins D. complementary to each other E. pyrimidines 4. _____ Complementary base pairing is the hydrogen bonding of: A. adenine with thymine; cytosine with guanine B. adenine with guanine; thymine with cytosine C. adenine with cytosine; guanine with uracil D. adenine with guanine; thymine with uracil E. Mo with Larry; Curly with Sven the Wonder Llama 5. _____ Which does NOT describe transcription? A. RNA polymerase B. mRNA synthesis occurs C. tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosomes D. copying of a portion of one strand of DNA E. complementary base pairing 6. _____ In RNA, uracil hydrogen bands with: A. guanine B. cytosine C. thymine D. adenine E. Throckmorton the Mediocre Moose (whose second cousin, by coincidence, is Sven the Wonder Llama) 5 7. _____ Which does NOT describe an R-plasmid? A. usually has genes for coding for a sex pilus B. has genes for multiple antibiotic resistance C. usually allows for conjugation D. found in many gram-negative bacteria E. carried from one bacterium to another by temperate phages 8. _____ Which describes a DNA nucleotide? A. 1 nitrogenous base, 1 phosphate, 1 ribose B. 1 nitrogenous base, 1 protein, 1 ATP C. 1 deoxyribose, 1 codon, 1 phosphate D. 1 nitrogenous base, 1 deoxyribose, 1 phosphate E. faster than a speeding bullet, more powerful than a locomotive, able to leap a Wonder Llama, eg, Sven, in a single bound 9. _____In the primary structure of a protein, the amino acids are connected to one another by: A. hydrogen bonds B. disulfide bonds C. congealed Yoo Hoo brand chocolate drink D. RNA E. peptide bonds 10. _____ ______________ molecules of tRNA with one or more attached amino acids can bind to a single ribosome at one time. A. one B. two C. three D. four E. 376,251,134.628, + or – pi (which, by one of those strange quirks of fate, just happens to be the telephone number of Olga, booking agent and personal manager to Sven, the Wonderous Wonder Llama – not available for birthdays) 11. _____ During protein synthesis, the proper amino acid is put in the proper place according to the genetic message by: A. transcription B. an anticodon hydrogen bonding with a codon C. RNA polymerase D. a nonsense codon E. bet you thought I was going to say “Sven” of Wonder Llama fame 12. _____ The sequence of _________________ in a DNA molecule ultimately determines the order of amino acids in proteins. A. deoxyribose molecules B. purine and pyrimidine bases C. phosphates D. anticodons E. plasmids 6 13. _____ Addition and deletion mutations usually result in: A. one wrong amino acid in protein B. what happens when the dental technician X-rays your teeth after always leaving the room and giving you flimsy excuses for doing so like “I have to go put my socks in the dryer” or “I think my Wonder Llama just threw up a hairball” C. a reading frame shift D. one wrong codon in the DNA E. substitution of one base in the DNA 14. _____A tRNA with an ACC anticodon will hydrogen bond with a ______ mRNA codon. (Use your codon sheet, Fig. 8 in the transcription section; Fig. 2 in the translation section.) A. TGG B. UGG C. ACC D. UCC E. stop 15. _____ A tRNA with an ACC anticodon will insert the amino acid ________ during translation. (Use your codon sheet, Fig. 8 in the transcription section; Fig. 2 in the translation section.) A. Cys B. Ser C. Trp D. Arg E. Svn DISCUSSION 1. Briefly DESCRIBE THE FUNCTION of the following in terms of bacterial protein synthesis: (2 points each) A. mRNA B. codon C. tRNA D. anticodon E. nonsense codon 7 2. As a result of a substitution mutation, a DNA base triplet 3’ ATA 5’ is charged to 3’ ATT 5’. State specifically what effect this would have on the resulting protein. (Use your codon sheet, Fig. 8 in the transcription section; Fig. 2 in the translation section.) (4 points) 3. Describe 2 different mechanisms of mutation and, in terms of protein synthesis, describe the 4 possible results that may occur as a result of these mechanisms. (7 points) 4. DESCRIBE how the order of nucleotide bases along a gene in the DNA ultimately determines the threedimensional shape and function of the protein coded for by that gene. (5 points) 5. Describe R-plasmid conjugation and its significance to medical microbiology. (3 points) 6. Compare transformation and transduction in bacteria. (2 points
Which of the following systems is the only one to have direct interactions with the other three?
GBIO 225 WEEK 4 EXAM
Exam
1) Which of the following systems is the only one to have direct interactions with the other three?
(1pts)
circulatory
digestive
respiratory
urinary
2) Blood moves most slowly through
(1pts)
venules.
arteries.
arterioles.
capillaries.
3) The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the
(1pts)
left and right atria.
right atrium and right ventricle.
left and right ventricles.
left atrium and left ventricle.
4) What occurs during systole?
(1pts)
The atrioventricular valves suddenly open.
The heart muscle tissues contract.
Oxygen-poor blood from all body regions except the lungs flows into the right atrium.
Oxygen-rich blood is pumped to the lungs.
5) If a physician hears two “lub” sounds instead of one, then which of the following conditions is true?
(1pts)
The AV and semilunar valves are not closing at the same time.
The semilunar valves are not closing simultaneously.
The atrial blood is flowing backward and causing the extra sound.
The atrioventricular valves are not closing at the same time.
6) The pulmonary circulation
(1pts)
leads to, through, and from the lungs.
leads to, through, and from the heart.
involves the hepatic portal vein.
includes the coronary arteries.
7) Heart excitation originates in the
(1pts)
intercalated disk.
atrioventricular node.
sinoatrial node.
endocardium
8) The heart
(1pts)
is completely independent of all nervous control.
is activated primarily through the autonomic nervous system.
will contract as a result of stimuli from the sinoatrial node.
contracts only as a result of nerve stimulation from the central nervous system.
9) Systolic pressure is
(1pts)
the lowest blood pressure in the aorta.
the pressure measured when the left ventricle is relaxed.
the difference between the highest and lowest pressures.
the peak pressure in the aorta when the left ventricle contracts.
10) Which of the following vessels offers more resistance to blood flow than the others?
(1pts)
arteries
arterioles
venules
11) At the arteriole end of the capillary, precapillary sphincters
(1pts)
force blood back into veins.
control blood flow into capillaries.
control blood flow into venules.
force blood back into arteries.
12) Which cell is the most abundant in the human body?
(1pts)
lymphocytes
erythrocytes
basophils
neutrophils
13) What is the function of hemoglobin?
(1pts)
to transport nutrients
to transport oxygen
to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
to transport carbon dioxide
14) All but which of the following can occur in the blood?
(1pts)
stabilization of pH
digestion of nutrients
transport of phagocytic cells
combining of oxygen with hemoglobin
15) The most abundant white blood cells are
(1pts)
monocytes
lymphocytes
neutrophils
eosinophils
16) All of the following promote the unloading of oxygen to needy tissues EXCEPT
(1pts)
small diameter blood vessels.
high metabolism.
abundant oxygen supply.
higher temperatures.
17) In humans, which cell does NOT have a nucleus when mature?
(1pts)
lymphocytes
eosinophils
neutrophils
erythrocytes
18) When the oxygen level in the blood is low, which of the following secretes erythropoietin, causing an increase in red blood cell production?
(1pts)
lungs
spleen
liver
kidneys
19) If you are blood type A,
(1pts)
you carry antibodies for type B blood.
you carry markers for type B blood.
you can donate blood to a person with type O blood.
you can receive blood from a person with type AB blood.
20) Which blood type is the universal donor?
(1pts)
B
A+
AB
O
21) In the Rh disease,
(1pts)
the mother must be negative and her first and second children positive.
the mother must be positive and her first and second children positive.
the mother and the father must both be negative and the child positive.
the mother must be negative and her first and second children negative.
22) Which of the following may be affected by altitude?
(1pts)
white blood cell count
weight
HDL and LDL
red blood cell count
23) Which of the following is NOT involved in the formation of a blood clot?
(1pts)
fibrinogen
thrombin
fibrin
plasma cells
24) How does aspirin help to reduce clotting?
(1pts)
it reduces the red blood count
it binds to fibrin
it reduces platelet aggregation
it reduces the platelet count
25) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal cavities?
(1pts)
oxygenate the blood
filter dust out of the incoming air
detect odors
warm the air
26) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged due to the process of
(1pts)
facilitated diffusion.
diffusion.
active transport.
osmosis
27) During inhalation,
(1pts)
the pressure in the pleural sac is less than the pressure within the lungs.
movement of the diaphragm is inhibited.
the pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than the pressure within the lungs.
the diaphragm moves upward and becomes more curved.
28) Oxygen moves from alveoli to the bloodstream
(1pts)
because the concentration of oxygen is greater in alveoli than in the blood.
mainly due to the activity of carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells.
by using the assistance of carbaminohemoglobin.
because the concentration of carbon dioxide is greater in alveoli than in the blood.
29) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by the body is transported to the lungs
(1pts)
dissolved in blood plasma.
bound to potassium carbonate ions.
as carbonic acid molecules.
as bicarbonate ions.
30) Infant respiratory distress syndrome is caused by
(1pts)
surfactant-secreting cells that do not work yet.
underdeveloped alveoli.
underdeveloped bronchi.
clogged bronchioles.
List five major health issues that can occur at any point in our life and explain how an individual’s lifestyle impacted the onset of the health issue. If scientific research does not implicate lifestyle was a contributing factor, provide other contributing factor/s which contributed to the health issue onset. Answers must be properly researched and referenced.
In your opinion, which method is best for the species in general and why?
Genetics and Reproduction
Create at least a 350-word blog post in Microsoft® Word in response to the following question: Female copperhead snakes have the ability to reproduce both sexually and asexually.
In your opinion, which method is best for the species in general and why?
Develop your opinion and include the following in your post:
• Discuss asexual and sexual reproduction in terms of genetic diversity. How is meiosis related to genetic diversity?
• Use one of Gregor Mendel’s ideas to support your opinion.
Cite your sources according to APA guidelines. See the Center for Writing Excellence for more information on using APA style